So what do you think?

[ailbhe]

I've heard this sentiment a few times in the recent past - say the past six months or so:

"If she didn't want to be woken up by sex, she should have told him so before."

Comments

[pauamma]

Reverse situation. I once woke up and found I had been humping my then-wife's leg while asleep. Should I apologize for doing so without consent? Assume that she consented implicitly by not waking me up or otherwise stopping me (eg getting out of reach)? (she woke up before I did, IIRC) Or be upset because she let it go on without my (conscious) consent? (As I remember, I was mortified by the incident, but can't recall the specific reason(s) after 16+ years.)