On the whole traumatic birth thing again...

[ailbhe]

From http://www.psychnet-uk.com/dsm_iv/female_orgasmic_disorder.htm :

Female Orgasmic Disorder occurs when there is a significant delay or total absence of orgasm associated with the sexual activity.

That bit's ok.

This condition must cause a problem in the relationship with the sexual partner in order to be defined as a disorder.

THAT BIT ENRAGES ME BEYOND BELIEF.

Comments

[serene]

How awful.

Musing: I wonder if they mean to imply "as a [psychological] disorder" and might be meaning that if the sexual relationship is fine, then they assume it's a medical problem. I mean, not like women EVER have orgasms when ALONE, on no no no never!

[ailbhe]

Yeah, plus it's totally possible for the sexual and romantic relationship to be fine and for the woman to be dissatisfied with her lack of orgasm within that relationship anyway, even though she's completely happy about her partner(s) and everything they do together.

[serene]

Of course. I'm just trying to suss out what they're thinking. Probably unwise.

[ailbhe]

I think there is no thinking here...

It's not even part of the actual *clinical* definition, it's just their guidance paragraph before the full text of the diagnosis. Mind you, the clinical definition isn't much better.