ailbhe: (Default)
ailbhe ([personal profile] ailbhe) wrote2010-05-21 03:50 pm

On the whole traumatic birth thing again...


From http://www.psychnet-uk.com/dsm_iv/female_orgasmic_disorder.htm :
Female Orgasmic Disorder occurs when there is a significant delay or total absence of orgasm associated with the sexual activity.

That bit's ok.
This condition must cause a problem in the relationship with the sexual partner in order to be defined as a disorder.

THAT BIT ENRAGES ME BEYOND BELIEF.
juliet: (Default)

[personal profile] juliet 2010-05-21 03:38 pm (UTC)(link)
/me hands you a pickaxe

I keep looking at that & trying to find a better reading of it (e.g. it's an incompetent way of saying that it's a disorder only if the woman herself feels that it upsets her sex life), but a) yeah, right, that's not how sex & women is treated, medically; & b) even then it explicitly includes an extensive range of 'sex life'.

Actually I think I will have that pickaxe back to seek targets myself. THIS KIND OF SHIT IS WHY I NO LONGER WANT TO GO INTO PSYCHOLOGY.

[identity profile] thereyougothen.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:57 pm (UTC)(link)
No, never. Now go wash your mind out with soap.

[identity profile] jentifred.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 08:43 pm (UTC)(link)
Is that what I've been doing wrong? Crap.

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:02 pm (UTC)(link)
Actually, that appears to be a bad website rendition of the DSM-IV criteria, which are as follows:

http://www.behavenet.com/capsules/disorders/forgdis.htm

Diagnostic criteria for 302.73 Female Orgasmic Disorder

A. Persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal sexual excitement phase. Women exhibit wide variability in the type or intensity of stimulation that triggers orgasm. The diagnosis of Female Orgasmic Disorder should be based on the clinician's judgment that the woman's orgasmic capacity is less than would be reasonable for her age, sexual experience, and the adequacy of sexual stimulation she receives.

B. The disturbance causes marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.

C. The orgasmic dysfunction is not better accounted for by another Axis I disorder (except another Sexual Dysfunction) and is not due exclusively to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication) or a general medical condition.

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:04 pm (UTC)(link)
There's a proposed revision for DSM-V here
http://www.dsm5.org/ProposedRevisions/Pages/proposedrevision.aspx?rid=172

Only major difference I can see is that it takes out the comment about "clinician's judgement" and replaces it with a more objective benchmark of problems that affect >75% of sexual experiences over >6 months.

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:27 pm (UTC)(link)
Yup. I can see why they want to avoid medicalising things that aren't causing anyone any distress, though.

The problem is that once you try to draw that line, you're essentially asking the patient to diagnose themselves - how distressed is "enough"? You end up not treating the people that put up and shut up, and (perhaps) wasting resources on people who have less severe problems but just complain louder. Also, even though the diagnostic criteria are drafted in as non-sexist a manner as possible, with identical wording, it ends up institutionalising society's sexism.

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:44 pm (UTC)(link)
Hmm, in your case I suspect you'd get pushed about from pillar to post - i.e. whether it's a physical problem or a mental one. DSM-IV only applies to the latter: I have no idea what the criteria are for diagnosing a physiological problem with female sexual response, nor where to look it up. Nor, unfortunately, whether anything can be done about it in either eventuality. :-/

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:54 pm (UTC)(link)
Well, I guess it's worth a shot if you have the energy >.<

The boxes they'll want ticked appear to be:

1) How long it's been going on (to catch DSM-V proposed criteria)
2) Whether it happens every time you have sex (likewise)
3) Whether it's a problem when masturbating as well as having sex (the "is Rob just crap" test)

... worth pointing out here that there wasn't a problem (so far as I know) prior to L being born.

4) Does it cause you or Rob distress (may be best if you can go in as a joint appointment and say it causes you both distress?).

They'll want to rule out physical causes (do you have some communication from the obs/gynae people to say there's no physical reason for problems?) and any drug interactions (antidepressants etc.)

[identity profile] xiphias.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 05:04 pm (UTC)(link)
"Sad" and "occasionally angry" means "distress".

The problem here is that you're British, and the DSM criteria are written largely by Americans.

When you read "distress", imagine the AMERICAN definition of "distress", not the BRITISH one.
deborah_c: (GaFilk 2006)

[personal profile] deborah_c 2010-05-21 09:28 pm (UTC)(link)
That sounds horribly familiar. My GP recently took Bad Hormonal Stuff Happening Again as "oh, you're just depressed, have some pills". I had to scream quite a lot to get something done about it, and fortunately was able to bypass her. (In her defence, she's normally quite good, but not this time.)

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:07 pm (UTC)(link)
Note the almost identical wording for the male equivalent:

http://www.behavenet.com/capsules/disorders/morgdis.htm

Diagnostic criteria for 302.74 Male Orgasmic Disorder

A. Persistent or recurrent delay in, or absence of, orgasm following a normal sexual excitement phase during sexual activity that the clinician, taking into account the person's age, judges to be adequate in focus, intensity, and duration.

B. The disturbance causes marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.

C. The orgasmic dysfunction is not better accounted for by another Axis I disorder (except another Sexual Dysfunction) and is not due exclusively to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g., a drug of abuse, a medication) or a general medical condition.

[identity profile] songster.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 04:13 pm (UTC)(link)
(and once again the proposed revision for DSM-V is to remove the "clinician's judgement" aspect and use an objective benchmark.)
http://www.dsm5.org/ProposedRevisions/Pages/proposedrevision.aspx?rid=173


I'm not sure why psychnet-uk.com put such a misleading preface to its article: I think they were trying to avoid stigmatising people with a "disorder" in cases where it's not causing them or their partner any distress, but they worded it remarkably badly if so. However, the crap bit isn't actually part of DSM-IV.

[identity profile] geekette8.livejournal.com 2010-05-21 06:05 pm (UTC)(link)
This does give me images of a clinician watching with a clipboard and then holding up scoreboards for the focus, intensity and duration!